[tuyetvan]

Lưu lại để vào đây ... Không biết chừng vài tháng nữa có dịp cần dùng lại ...    :face-with-tears-of-joy4:



Đã nói trước kia rằng Kinh Thánh không phải là một cuốn sách luật, mà chỉ là một cuốn giáo khoa. Những lời trong KT chỉ để đọc cho hiểu chứ không phải để đi chấp từng câu từng chữ như sách luật.  

KT khi được dich từ ngôn ngữ này sang ngôn ngữ kia từ tiếng Aramaic truyền sang Hy Lạp rồi dịch sang Pháp, Anh, Viêt .. nó có nhiều lệch lạc chứ không linear, nghĩa là không dich thẳng ý nghĩa được.

Đã là sách giáo khoa mà đi bắt từng chữ đã là cái sai .... Không có luật nào công nhận rằng bạn có thể dùng sách giáo khoa để đi buộc tội người khác ... 

Until Then

Scripture’s statement that Joseph "knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn" would not necessarily mean they did "know" each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, "Until we meet again, God bless you." Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

• 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
  
  
  
• 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
  
  
  
• 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, "he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.")
  

In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for "until" whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph "not having come together" would have ended after Jesus was born. 

The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: "But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar."

Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was "sent" to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou. 

what the heck   

để Vân coi cái này nói gì nhá  :dance: